Pedigree Query

I have a question for those with more than my (zero) sales experience. Specifically with the Fasig Tipton yearling sales, how can I tell the difference between:

a) Not sold due to the consignor having the last bid

b) Not sold due to not getting any bids

Obviously I am talking about horses who's final listed price is at the minimum for that sale. I am more familliar with the format that uses the term repurchased instead of not sold.

I am looking at the last few years of Fasig Tipton Texas Summer Yearling results and trying to grasp how many horses just didn't get a bid. Am I missing something such as the owner purchased horses actually being listed as sold, but to the owner?

Thanks in advance!

M S---- RUBIANO PAYLINE HORSE OF COURSE AGENT FOR --- EQUINE INC. NOT SOLD ($1,000)

This is an example from the FTTEX December sale. I think you could assume this is a no bid. 1000 is the minimum upset price at that particular sale. Had the consignor had a higher reserve and someone placed a bid at 1000, the auction company would have kicked in the next bid at "1500". But, because it says Not Sold (1000), its a good assumption that either
a) the seller placed no prior reserve and then bid 1000 and let it hang there and then signed the ticket as an RNA (which really is the same as a no bid), or,
b) there really was no bid.


Different houses report differently, some actually report NO BID. I think OBS does it that way.